Then why does the bible make the point of putting Joseph in the line...and where do you 'suppose' Mary's lineage happens to come from without evidence?
If you look at the two genealogies in Matthew 1 and Luke 3, they are very different. Some scholars suggest that this is because one is that of Joseph, and the other is of Mary.
It suggests to me that two writers made it up! If you read it, it makes it clear whose genealogy it is. To suggest that one is Mary's is ludicrous. I'm surprised you go down such a line, since you obviously don't believe it yourself.