Quote from: Martin on March 30, 2011, 17:10:33

So, by your theology, everyone was still bound by the law.

Martin, taking for the sake of this point in this argument (and Boudi's earlier post) that Jesus was both God and man, is god bound by laws that he himself hasn't established, or is He bound by the underlying laws which he gave originally that these extra bits have been attached to?

Andy, Boudi's question was about Jesus' disciples. Was Jesus right to teach his disciples, who were presumably bound by the law, such things.  Actually I agree with your answer above, that harvesting a few ears of wheat isn't work so the question isn't important to me, but I was right in what I pointed out to Pow Wow. 

What I've been trying to find out is whether you believe that it's possible that even the smallest part of the Bible where it says says 'God commanded...' or 'The Lord said...' could actually be the words of men rather than of God.  It's proving impossible to get a straight answer to that simple question.